Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
• B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
• C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
• D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to offer to consult with the physician regarding the use of ginger, showing cultural sensitivity. Ginger is known to help relieve nausea, especially in pregnancy. Choice A is the correct answer as it respects the client's preference for a home remedy and involves the physician in the decision-making process. Choice B dismisses the client's preference for a home remedy without exploring its potential benefits. Choice C makes a generalized statement discrediting the effectiveness of herbs, which is not evidence-based and disregards the client's beliefs. Choice D offers an alternative without addressing the client's specific request, failing to acknowledge the client's autonomy and cultural background.

2. Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:

• A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
• B. an increase in protein in the diet.
• C. vitamins A and C.
• D. an increase in calcium in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is necessary for red blood cell (RBC) production, and in clients with renal failure who lack endogenous erythropoietin, exogenous erythropoietin is administered. However, for erythropoietin to effectively stimulate RBC production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are crucial. These nutrients are essential for RBC synthesis and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is to give iron, folic acid, and B12 with erythropoietin. Choice B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not necessary for RBC production and may exacerbate uremia in clients with renal failure. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, respectively, are not directly related to RBC production and are not required to enhance the effectiveness of erythropoietin.

3. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Estrogen
• C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

4. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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