the nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated whi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.

2. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.

3. What is the best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis.' Newly diagnosed diabetics require education on their disease, medications, glucose testing, insulin injections, foot care, and sick-day plans. Choices A and D aim to prevent issues that do not currently exist for the client. Choice C, 'Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements,' is not the priority diagnosis for a newly diagnosed diabetic. While nutritional adjustments may be required for type I or type II diabetes, providing knowledge and education takes precedence at this stage.

4. The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.

5. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.

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