which client should be seen by the emergency department nurse first
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

2. What is appropriate care for a client with neutropenia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has neutropenia, they have low white blood cell levels, which increases the risk of infections due to a weakened immune system. Wearing a mask when out of the room is crucial to reduce the risk of exposure to respiratory infections. Avoiding fresh fruits and vegetables is also necessary as they may contain harmful pathogens. Having a private room helps minimize exposure to pathogens and ensures that visitors are carefully screened for any signs of illness. Routine hand washing is essential to prevent the spread of infections in the healthcare setting, but the most direct measure to protect the client from potential infections is wearing a mask when out of the room.

3. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

4. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

5. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.

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