Nursing Elites

1. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

• A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
• B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
• C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
• D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

2. One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?

• A. Meningitis
• B. Absence seizure
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Meniere's disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.

3. A child presents to the school nurse with left knee pain after suffering a fall on the playground. Which action should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the child to extend the affected knee
• B. Perform range of motion exercises on both knees
• C. Compare the appearance of the left knee to the right knee
• D. Have the child soak the affected knee in warm water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the appearance of the left knee to the right knee is the most appropriate initial action as it provides a baseline for assessing any visible differences such as swelling, bruising, or deformities. This comparison helps the nurse identify any acute changes in the affected knee's appearance after the fall. Instructing the child to extend the affected knee (Choice A) may worsen the pain or cause further injury. Performing range of motion exercises on both knees (Choice B) could exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until a proper assessment is done. Having the child soak the affected knee in warm water (Choice D) is not the priority at this stage as assessing for any physical changes is more crucial.

4. Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?

• A. Type I diabetes
• B. Alcoholism
• C. Leukemia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.

5. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. primary health care prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.

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