Nursing Elites

1. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

2. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
• B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
• C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
• D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.

3. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:

• A. Akinesia.
• B. Dyskinesia.
• C. Chorea.
• D. Dystonia.

Correct answer: C.

Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.

4. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

5. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.

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