which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurses priority concern in the burn client
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurse's priority concern in the burn client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. In a burn client, the nurse's priority concern is hyperkalemia due to cell lysis, which releases potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is less likely in burn clients. Hypoalbuminemia (Choice C) can occur but is not the priority in the immediate management of a burn client. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with burn injuries.

2. Teaching about the importance of avoiding foods high in potassium is most crucial for which client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are prone to hyperkalemia due to impaired kidney function, making it crucial for them to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk of hypokalemia. These individuals should actually consume foods high in potassium to replenish the electrolyte lost through diuresis, ileostomy output, or metabolic alkalosis.

3. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

4. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.

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