Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:

• A. 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
• B. 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
• C. 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.
• D. 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.

2. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?

• A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
• B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
• C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
• D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.

3. Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?

• A. PaO2 90 mm Hg
• B. Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L
• C. CO2 47 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.34

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L. In metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate levels are lower than normal. A bicarbonate value of 15 mEq/L indicates a deficit in the buffer system, contributing to the acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A, PaO2 90 mm Hg, reflects oxygen partial pressure and is not directly related to metabolic acidosis. Choice C, CO2 47 mm Hg, represents carbon dioxide levels and is more indicative of respiratory status. Choice D, pH 7.34, falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45) and does not confirm metabolic acidosis.

4. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

• A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
• B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
• C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
• D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

5. What is the preferred position for a client post liver biopsy procedure?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Right side
• C. Left side
• D. Prone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a client post liver biopsy procedure is the right side. Placing the client on the right side helps apply pressure to the liver area, which can help in holding pressure and stopping bleeding. Placing the client on the left side may not be as effective in providing direct pressure on the liver. The prone position is also not ideal for post-liver biopsy care as it does not target the liver area directly. Fowler's position, a semi-sitting position, is not typically recommended post liver biopsy as it does not provide the necessary pressure on the liver site.

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