Nursing Elites

1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Estrogen
• C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

2. What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.

3. A child presents to the school nurse with left knee pain after suffering a fall on the playground. Which action should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the child to extend the affected knee
• B. Perform range of motion exercises on both knees
• C. Compare the appearance of the left knee to the right knee
• D. Have the child soak the affected knee in warm water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the appearance of the left knee to the right knee is the most appropriate initial action as it provides a baseline for assessing any visible differences such as swelling, bruising, or deformities. This comparison helps the nurse identify any acute changes in the affected knee's appearance after the fall. Instructing the child to extend the affected knee (Choice A) may worsen the pain or cause further injury. Performing range of motion exercises on both knees (Choice B) could exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until a proper assessment is done. Having the child soak the affected knee in warm water (Choice D) is not the priority at this stage as assessing for any physical changes is more crucial.

4. What is the preferred position for a client post liver biopsy procedure?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Right side
• C. Left side
• D. Prone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a client post liver biopsy procedure is the right side. Placing the client on the right side helps apply pressure to the liver area, which can help in holding pressure and stopping bleeding. Placing the client on the left side may not be as effective in providing direct pressure on the liver. The prone position is also not ideal for post-liver biopsy care as it does not target the liver area directly. Fowler's position, a semi-sitting position, is not typically recommended post liver biopsy as it does not provide the necessary pressure on the liver site.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?

• A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
• B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
• C. Insert NG tube to low suction
• D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.

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