what hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

2. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.

3. When teaching a patient with COPD pulmonary exercises, what should be done?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach pursed-lip breathing techniques. Pursed-lip breathing helps to decrease the volume of air expelled by keeping the airways open longer, making it easier for patients with COPD to breathe out. Encouraging heavy lifting exercises (Choice B) is not suitable for patients with COPD as it can lead to increased shortness of breath. Limiting exercises due to respiratory acidosis (Choice C) is not correct; instead, exercises should be tailored to the patient's tolerance. Taking breaks every 10-20 minutes (Choice D) is not specific to the management of COPD pulmonary exercises.

4. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

5. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.

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