NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.
2. A patient's nurse taking a history notes complaints of SOB and weakness in the lower extremities. The patient has a history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. Which of the following may be occurring?
- A. The patient may be developing CHF
- B. The patient may be having a MI
- C. The patient may be developing COPD
- D. The patient may be having an onset of PVD
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of shortness of breath (SOB) and weakness in the lower extremities, along with a history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension, are suggestive of a myocardial infarction (MI). It is important to note that MI can present with a variety of symptoms, including those affecting the respiratory system and muscle weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the patient's symptoms are more indicative of a myocardial infarction rather than congestive heart failure (CHF), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or peripheral vascular disease (PVD).
3. A client with sickle cell disease is worried about passing the disease on to children. Which of the following statements by the PN is most appropriate for this client?
- A. "You should discuss the inheritance risk with your physician."?
- B. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children."?
- C. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and is not passed on to children."?
- D. "Sickle cell disease is caused by an infection and cannot be passed on to children."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with sickle cell disease has a genetic condition that can be passed on to their offspring. The most appropriate statement for the PN to provide is to acknowledge this fact and inform the client that sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children. This empowers the client with accurate information. Choice A has been refined to emphasize discussing the inheritance risk, making it a better option than the vague original choice. Choices C and D provide incorrect information. Sickle cell disease is indeed genetically based and can be inherited.
4. Which type of cells secrete insulin?
- A. alpha cells
- B. beta cells
- C. CD4 cells
- D. helper cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin. Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, not insulin (Choice A). CD4 cells are a type of immune cell that helps coordinate the immune response (Choice C). Helper cells are a type of immune cell that aids in activating other immune cells (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is beta cells.
5. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
- C. Sympathetic response to activity
- D. Meningitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.
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