Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?

• A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
• B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
• C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
• D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.

2. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

• A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
• B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
• C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
• D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

3. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• A. Within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.
• B. Lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.
• C. Indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.
• D. Indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. In this case, the client's BMI is calculated as 35, indicating obesity. A BMI of 27 falls within the overweight range, not obesity (which starts at 30). Choices A and B are incorrect because a BMI of 35 indicates obesity, not normal limits or being lower than normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, indicating obesity based on the BMI calculation.

4. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

• A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
• B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
• C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
• D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.

5. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Neutrophil count of 60%
• B. Basophil count of 0.5%
• C. Monocyte count of 2%
• D. Reticulocyte count of 1%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.

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