Nursing Elites

1. A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:

• A. The baby will eventually take to the breast.
• B. I can prepare a bottle if you want to try that.
• C. A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.
• D. I can arrange for the charge nurse to come and talk to you about breastfeeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

• A. Herpes
• B. Scleroderma
• C. Dermatitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.

3. A client is being taught about self-administration of Haldol 15 mg po hs. For which side effect/s should the client seek medical attention?

• A. Shortness of breath and fatigue
• B. Restlessness and muscle spasms
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is restlessness and muscle spasms. Haldol, an antipsychotic medication, can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as muscle spasms and restlessness. These side effects can be serious and should prompt the client to seek medical attention. Shortness of breath, fatigue, dry mouth, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with Haldol use, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. A child with newly diagnosed leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. Which would be included in his plan of care by the nurse?

• A. Place the child in a negative pressure isolation room
• B. Administer prophylactic IV antibiotics
• C. Avoid high protein food intake
• D. Teach family and visitors handwashing techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach family and visitors handwashing techniques. Any client on chemotherapy should have good infection control measures in place, such as handwashing by all who they encounter. Placing the child in a negative pressure isolation room (Choice A) is not necessary unless specifically indicated for a certain condition. Administering prophylactic IV antibiotics (Choice B) may not be part of the standard care plan for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy. Avoiding high protein food intake (Choice C) is not directly related to infection control and may not be necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions.

5. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
• B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
• C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
• D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

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