Nursing Elites

1. Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?

• A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
• B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
• C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
• D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.

2. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

3. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer PRN anxiolytic
• B. Administer Antibiotics
• C. Reassure the client that everything is okay and offer food and beverage
• D. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.

4. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

• A. inspection for visible pulsations.
• B. palpation of thrill.
• C. percussion for dullness.
• D. auscultation of blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

5. A nurse is caring for her clients when her new admit arrives on the unit. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Ask the nursing assistant to complete emptying the catheter bag and assess the new admission.
• B. Ask the nursing assistant to take vital signs on the new admit and begin the history until she can get there.
• C. Ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can get there.
• D. Ask the unit secretary to make the client and family comfortable until she can complete her present task.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can arrive. Nursing assistants are not qualified to perform assessments, and the unit secretary's role does not involve client assessments. Delegating the assessment to the graduate nurse ensures that a qualified healthcare professional is evaluating the new admission, aligning with the nurse's responsibilities and providing appropriate care.

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