Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at an outpatient clinic is returning phone calls that have been made to the clinic. Which of the following calls should have the highest priority for medical intervention?

• A. A home health patient reports, "I am starting to have a breakdown of my heels."?
• B. A patient that received an upper extremity cast yesterday reports, "I can't feel my fingers in my right hand today."?
• C. A young female reports, 'I think I sprained my ankle about 2 weeks ago.'
• D. A middle-aged patient reports, 'My knee is still hurting from the TKR.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient who received an upper extremity cast yesterday and reports not being able to feel their fingers in the right hand. This situation indicates a potential neurovascular issue that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options are of lesser priority: A - Breakdown of the heels, while concerning, is not an acute issue that necessitates immediate intervention. C - An ankle sprain that occurred two weeks ago is now subacute and unlikely to be an urgent medical concern. D - Pain in the knee following a total knee replacement (TKR) is common in the early postoperative period and is not unexpected.

2. The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?

• A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
• C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
• D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

4. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

5. A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

• A. Administer O2.
• B. Turn the client on her left side.
• C. Notify the physician.
• D. No action is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: This scenario describes early deceleration due to head compression, which is a benign finding in labor. Early decelerations mirror the contractions and do not require any intervention as they are considered a normal response to fetal head compression. The fetal heart rate returns to baseline at the end of the contraction. In this case, the correct action is no action at the moment. Close monitoring of the mother and baby is essential, but immediate intervention is not required. Administering O2 (Choice A) or turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not indicated for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is unnecessary for this type of deceleration.

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