Nursing Elites

1. During the admission assessment for a client undergoing breast augmentation, which information should the nurse prioritize reporting to the surgeon before surgery?

• A. The client is concerned about who will care for her two children while she recovers.
• B. The client has a history of postoperative dehiscence after a previous C-section.
• C. The client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior.
• D. The client's concerns over pain control postoperatively.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to report to the surgeon before surgery is the client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior. This information is crucial as the client may be pregnant, and a pregnancy test will need to be completed before administering any anesthetic agents. Reporting this detail ensures patient safety and prevents potential risks associated with anesthesia. Choices A, B, and D are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over the need to rule out pregnancy before surgery.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Hiccups
• C. Blood glucose of 150
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

4. A client is going to have an endoscopy performed. Which of the following is not a probable reason for an endoscopy procedure?

• A. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet
• B. Pain felt during a bowel movement
• C. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant
• D. Right shoulder pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pain felt during a bowel movement.' Endoscopy is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Pain during a bowel movement would suggest an issue in the lower gastrointestinal tract, which is typically examined with a colonoscopy. Choices A, C, and D are not probable reasons for an endoscopy procedure as they relate to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract or are not specific to gastrointestinal issues. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet could indicate a risk of aspiration pneumonia related to swallowing difficulties, which can be assessed through an endoscopy. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant may be related to conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers that can be investigated using an endoscopy. Right shoulder pain can be a referred pain from conditions like gallbladder disease that can also be evaluated with an endoscopy.

5. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?

• A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
• B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
• C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
• D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.

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