Nursing Elites

1. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?

• A. Disorientation
• B. Sensory changes
• C. Inability to produce sound
• D. Hearing deficits

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.

2. The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance is closely associated with hypoparathyroidism?

• A. Hypocalcemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypophosphatemia.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

4. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

• A. Allergies to shellfish
• B. Date of last platelet donation
• C. Time of last oral intake
• D. Blood type

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

5. Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?

• A. Alpha tocopherol (vitamin E)
• B. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
• C. Calcitriol (vitamin D)
• D. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.

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