a 28 year old male has a diagnosis of aids the patient has had a two year history of aids the most likely cognitive deficits include which of the foll
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NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.

2. Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

4. Which of the following medications is not classified as a neuromuscular blocker?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Pitressin. Pitressin is a hormone replacement medication and is not classified as a neuromuscular blocker. Choices A, B, and D (Anectine, Pavulon, Mivacron) are neuromuscular blockers used during anesthesia to induce muscle relaxation for various procedures. Anectine is also known as succinylcholine, Pavulon is rocuronium, and Mivacron is mivacurium. These medications act on the neuromuscular junction to block the transmission of nerve impulses, leading to muscle relaxation.

5. What vitamin is important in preventing peripheral neuritis in a client with alcohol abuse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fat-soluble vitamins.' Vitamin B, not Vitamin D, is crucial in preventing peripheral neuritis in individuals with alcohol abuse. Vitamin B deficiency, particularly B1 (thiamine), is commonly associated with peripheral neuritis in alcoholics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Vitamin D is not directly related to peripheral neuritis, and potassium deficiency typically presents with different symptoms.

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