a patient that has delivered a 82 lb baby boy 3 days ago via c section reports white patches on her breast that arent going away which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A patient who has delivered an 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing thrush, a fungal infection, which can present as white patches on the breast that persist. Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat thrush. Therefore, the correct answer is Nystatin. Atropine is not indicated for this condition and is used for different purposes. Amoxil is an antibiotic and would not be effective against a fungal infection like thrush. Lortab is a pain medication and is not appropriate for treating thrush.

2. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

3. Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control. Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (Choice C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (Choice D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.

4. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.

5. A 22-year-old patient in a mental health lock-down unit under suicide watch appears happy about being discharged. Which of the following is probably happening?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is concerning that a patient under suicide watch is happy about being discharged as it may indicate that the patient's suicide plan has advanced. This change in behavior should be taken seriously as it can signal an increased risk of self-harm. Choices A, C, and D are less likely as the patient's happiness about discharge in this context is more indicative of a worsening situation rather than positive outcomes like being around family, clarifying future plans, or improving mood.

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