Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance is closely associated with hypoparathyroidism?

• A. Hypocalcemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypophosphatemia.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.

2. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

3. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

• A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
• B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
• C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
• D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?

• A. Asterixis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Lethargy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?

• A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
• B. Administer the PRN sedative
• C. Call the physician immediately
• D. Administer the PRN pain medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.

Similar Questions