Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance is closely associated with hypoparathyroidism?

• A. Hypocalcemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypophosphatemia.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.

2. Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:

• A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
• B. an increase in protein in the diet.
• C. vitamins A and C.
• D. an increase in calcium in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is necessary for red blood cell (RBC) production, and in clients with renal failure who lack endogenous erythropoietin, exogenous erythropoietin is administered. However, for erythropoietin to effectively stimulate RBC production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are crucial. These nutrients are essential for RBC synthesis and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is to give iron, folic acid, and B12 with erythropoietin. Choice B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not necessary for RBC production and may exacerbate uremia in clients with renal failure. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, respectively, are not directly related to RBC production and are not required to enhance the effectiveness of erythropoietin.

3. A nurse has been ordered to set up Buck's traction on a patient's lower extremity due to a femur fracture. Which of the following applies to Buck's traction?

• A. A weight greater than 10 lbs. should be used.
• B. The line of pull is upward at an angle.
• C. The line of pull is straight
• D. A weight greater than 20 lbs. should be used.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the line of pull is straight for Buck's traction. This type of traction is applied to maintain alignment and immobilization of fractures, typically involving the lower extremities. A straight line of pull helps to provide the necessary countertraction to keep the fractured bone in proper alignment. Choices A and D are incorrect because Buck's traction commonly uses a weight range between 5-10 lbs, and using a weight greater than 10 or 20 lbs would not be appropriate or safe. Choice B is incorrect as well since the line of pull for Buck's traction is straight, not upward at an angle.

4. A client with sickle cell disease is worried about passing the disease on to children. Which of the following statements by the PN is most appropriate for this client?

• A. "You should discuss the inheritance risk with your physician."?
• B. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children."?
• C. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and is not passed on to children."?
• D. "Sickle cell disease is caused by an infection and cannot be passed on to children."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with sickle cell disease has a genetic condition that can be passed on to their offspring. The most appropriate statement for the PN to provide is to acknowledge this fact and inform the client that sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children. This empowers the client with accurate information. Choice A has been refined to emphasize discussing the inheritance risk, making it a better option than the vague original choice. Choices C and D provide incorrect information. Sickle cell disease is indeed genetically based and can be inherited.

5. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?

• A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
• B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
• C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
• D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.

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