Nursing Elites

1. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver disease has completed an advance directive and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) document and wishes to receive palliative care. Which of the following would correspond to the client's wish for comfort care?

• A. Positioning frequently to prevent skin breakdown and providing pain management and other comfort measures
• B. Carrying out vigorous resuscitation efforts if the client were to stop breathing, but no resuscitation if the heart stops beating
• C. Providing intravenous fluids when the client becomes dehydrated
• D. Providing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) if the client is not able to eat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Palliative care includes measures to prevent skin breakdown, pain management, and management of other symptoms that cause discomfort, as well as encouraging contact with family and friends. A DNR request precludes all resuscitative efforts related to respiratory or cardiac arrest, making choice B incorrect. Dehydration is a natural part of the dying process, so providing intravenous fluids as in choice C would not align with the client's wish for comfort care. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as in choice D is an invasive procedure meant to prolong life and is not part of palliative care, which focuses on improving quality of life rather than extending it.

2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

3. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is taking the health history of an 85-year-old client. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with normal aging?

• A. Increase in subcutaneous fat.
• B. Diminished cough reflex.
• C. Long-term memory loss.
• D. Myopia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diminished cough reflex.' Diminished cough reflex is a physical finding consistent with normal aging in older adults, which can increase the risk of aspiration and atelectasis. An increase in subcutaneous fat actually raises the risk of pressure ulcers. While long-term memory is typically preserved in aging unless affected by dementia, short-term memory often declines. Myopia (near-sightedness) is common in younger individuals, but presbyopia (far-sightedness) is more common with aging. Additionally, individuals with myopia may experience an improvement in vision as they age.

5. Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?

• A. Ca
• B. K
• C. Na
• D. Cl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'K.' Normal serum potassium levels range between 3.5 and 5.5 mEq/L. Mr. Smith's potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L is significantly below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious risks such as cardiac arrhythmias. The levels of sodium (Na), calcium (Ca), and chloride (Cl) are within normal ranges, so they do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Therefore, the nurse should report the low potassium level to the physician for prompt intervention.

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