NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
- A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
- B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- C. Theophylline (Theodur)
- D. Albuterol (Atrovent)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
2. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?
- A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
- B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
- C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
- D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.
3. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
- A. Hepatitis A
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Hepatitis C
- D. Hepatitis D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids, not through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, not via the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis D occurs only in individuals infected with Hepatitis B. Therefore, the correct choice for the type of hepatitis transmitted via the fecal-oral route is Hepatitis A.
4. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?
- A. meaning of current stressors
- B. possibility of self-harm
- C. motivation to participate in treatment
- D. presence of alcohol or other drug use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.
5. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?
- A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
- B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
- C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
- D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.
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