NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
- A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
- B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- C. Theophylline (Theodur)
- D. Albuterol (Atrovent)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
2. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:
- A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
- B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
- C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
- D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.
3. While assessing a patient who has undergone a recent CABG, the nurse notices a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Recommend a dermatological consult to the physician.
- B. Note the location of the mole and contact the physician via telephone.
- C. Note the location of the mole and follow-up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call.
- D. Remove the mole with a sharp debridement technique, following approval from the charge nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should note the location of the mole and follow up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call. This action is appropriate because a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color raises concern for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Recommending a dermatological consult (Choice A) might delay the evaluation and management of the mole. Contacting the physician via telephone (Choice B) may not provide a documented record of the observation. Removing the mole without proper evaluation (Choice D) could be dangerous and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.
4. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
- C. Sympathetic response to activity
- D. Meningitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.
5. A patient has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse has been ordered to give 2 units of blood to this patient. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
- A. Administer pain medication to the patient.
- B. Inform the patient's family about the procedure in person.
- C. Decrease the temperature of the blood to be given.
- D. Increase the temperature of the blood to be given.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmia, warming the blood before transfusion can help prevent additional arrhythmias. Cold blood can lead to arrhythmias and should be avoided. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not directly related to the safe administration of blood. Informing the patient's family in person (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action required for safe transfusion. Decreasing the temperature of the blood to be given (Choice C) would increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia, contrary to the goal of ensuring patient safety.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access