NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. In the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia, which medication is most commonly recognized?
- A. Questran
- B. Digitalis
- C. Nitroglycerin
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Atropine is the medication most commonly recognized for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia because it increases the rate of conduction in the AV node, helping to alleviate bradycardia. Questran is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for bradycardia. Digitalis, such as Digoxin, is used for heart failure and atrial fibrillation but not typically for bradycardia. Nitroglycerin is primarily used for angina and not bradycardia.
2. What is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1, herpes simplex virus 2, and varicella-zoster virus?
- A. HIV.
- B. HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV.
- C. CMV
- D. Influenza A viruses.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1), herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution is needed in renal impairment. Choice A, HIV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the drug of choice for HIV. Choice C, CMV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the preferred treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. Choice D, Influenza A viruses, is incorrect as acyclovir is not used to treat influenza viruses.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?
- A. Morphine
- B. Atropine
- C. Procardia
- D. Digitalis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.
4. A 46-year-old has returned from a heart catheterization and wants to get up to start walking 3 hours after the procedure. The nurse should:
- A. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour and check the chart for activity orders.
- B. Allow the patient to begin limited ambulation with assistance.
- C. Recommend a physical therapy consultation for ambulation.
- D. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for another 6 hours and check the chart for activity orders.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour after a heart catheterization before starting ambulation. This period allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation at the catheter insertion site. Starting ambulation too soon can disrupt the healing process and lead to adverse events. Choice B is incorrect because limited ambulation should not be initiated shortly after the procedure as it may increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as physical therapy consultation is not typically necessary for initial ambulation post-heart catheterization; this can be managed by nursing staff. Choice D is incorrect as keeping the leg straight for 6 hours is excessive and unnecessary, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.
5. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?
- A. tuberculosis (TB)
- B. pneumonia
- C. pleural effusion
- D. hypoxia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.
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