NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A nurse is covering a pediatric unit and is responsible for a 15-year-old male patient on the floor. The mother of the child states, "I think my son is sexually interested in girls."? The most appropriate course of action for the nurse is to respond by stating:
- A. "I will talk to the doctor about it."?
- B. "Has this been going on for a while?"?
- C. "How do you know this?"?
- D. "Teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to acknowledge that teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females. This response normalizes the mother's concern and provides reassurance that such behavior is typical during adolescence. Option A deflects the conversation to the doctor without addressing the mother's concern directly. Option B focuses on the duration rather than addressing the mother's statement. Option C may come off as defensive or dismissive, questioning the mother's observation. Therefore, the best response is to acknowledge the normalcy of teenage behavior regarding sexual interest.
2. When placing an IV line in a patient with active TB and HIV, which safety equipment should the nurse wear?
- A. Sterile gloves, mask, and goggles
- B. Surgical cap, gloves, mask, and proper shoewear
- C. Double gloves, gown, and mask
- D. Goggles, mask, gloves, and gown
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When dealing with a patient with active TB and HIV, the nurse should wear goggles, a mask, gloves, and a gown to protect themselves from potential exposure to infectious agents through respiratory secretions or blood. Surgical cap and proper shoewear are not specifically required for this procedure, making option B incorrect. Double gloving is not necessary in this scenario, hence option C is incorrect. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it includes all the essential protective equipment for this situation.
3. Following a thyroidectomy, a client is complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and neck pressure. Which nursing action is the best response?
- A. Stay with the client, remove the dressing, and elevate the head of bed.
- B. Call a code, open the trach set, and position the client supine.
- C. Have the client say "EEE"? to check for laryngeal integrity.
- D. Immediately go to the nurse's station and call the physician
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! The client is displaying signs of respiratory distress after a thyroidectomy. By staying with the client, removing the dressing around the neck, and elevating the head of the bed, the nurse can assess the airway and breathing status more effectively. This immediate action can help alleviate any potential airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because calling a code and opening the trach set without initial assessment and basic interventions may delay necessary actions. Choice C is incorrect as having the client say "EEE"? is not as immediate or effective in addressing the respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the client alone and calling the physician without providing immediate assistance can be detrimental in a situation of potential airway compromise.
4. One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?
- A. Meningitis
- B. Absence seizure
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Meniere's disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.
5. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
- A. Cushingoid appearance
- B. Alopecia
- C. Temporary or permanent sterility
- D. Pathologic fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.
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