NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:
- A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.
2. Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.
3. An RN on your unit has had an argument with the family of a client regarding the way in which the RN has changed the client's dressing. The family is adamant that the dressing change was performed incorrectly. The RN insists that sterile technique was observed. As an RN manager, what is the best response?
- A. Meet with the family member and the RN to discuss the disagreement regarding the dressing change.
- B. Talk to the family member and assure them that the nurse followed the hospital procedure.
- C. Discuss the dressing change procedure with the RN and compare it to a current textbook.
- D. Change the RN's assignment the next day to another client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When conflict occurs, it is best to meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. This approach allows each party to hear what the other is saying and prevents the RN manager from being caught in the middle. By facilitating a discussion between the family member and the RN, they can work together to find a resolution or the manager can mediate. This promotes open communication, understanding, and collaboration. Option A is the correct choice because it emphasizes addressing the conflict directly and seeking a mutual understanding. Option B is incorrect because just assuring the family member may not address the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve the family member in the resolution process. Option D is inappropriate as it doesn't address the conflict but rather avoids it by changing the RN's assignment.
4. A client delivered a term male infant four hours ago. The infant was stillborn. Which room assignment would be most appropriate for this client?
- A. Request a private room on the GYN floor
- B. Assign her to a private room on the postpartum unit
- C. Discharge her home as soon as her condition is stable
- D. Room her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate room assignment for the client who delivered a stillborn infant would be to request a private room on the GYN floor. This client needs privacy to grieve, and having a private space allows for family members to offer support. Placing her in a GYN unit ensures that she is away from the maternity unit's sights and sounds, which could be painful reminders for her. Assigning her to a postpartum unit may cause distress due to the presence of other mothers and newborns. Discharging her home too early may not allow her sufficient time for emotional and physical recovery. Rooming her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss may not provide the necessary privacy and space she needs for her emotional well-being.
5. Which of the following procedures describes an opening between the colon and abdominal wall?
- A. ileostomy
- B. jejunostomy
- C. colostomy
- D. cecostomy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A colostomy is an opening between the colon and abdominal wall. An ileostomy is an opening between the ileum and abdominal wall, not the colon. Jejunostomy is an opening between the jejunum and abdominal wall, and cecostomy is an opening into the cecum. The term 'colostomy' specifically refers to the surgical procedure where a part of the colon is brought through the abdominal wall to create a stoma, allowing feces to leave the body. Therefore, the correct answer is colostomy as it accurately describes the opening between the colon and the abdominal wall, distinct from the other options.
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