Nursing Elites

1. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

2. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

3. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

4. The client is undergoing an induction for fetal demise at 34 weeks. Immediately after delivery, the mother asks to see the infant. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Bring the swaddled fetus to the mother
• B. Explain that the cause of death must be determined before she can see the baby
• C. Ask her if she is sure she wants to see the baby
• D. Tell her it would be better to wait until she is in her room before she sees the baby

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should bring the swaddled fetus to the mother as the best response. Allowing the mother to see the infant immediately after delivery is crucial for her grieving process. It provides her with the opportunity to bond, say goodbye, and start the grieving process. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the mother's request to see the baby can hinder her grieving process and prolong her suffering. Choice C is inappropriate as it questions the mother's decision at a sensitive time, potentially causing distress. Choice D is also not the best response as it suggests waiting, which may not be in the mother's best interest at that moment, as she needs immediate support and closure.

5. Which of the following procedures describes an opening between the colon and abdominal wall?

• A. ileostomy
• B. jejunostomy
• C. colostomy
• D. cecostomy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A colostomy is an opening between the colon and abdominal wall. An ileostomy is an opening between the ileum and abdominal wall, not the colon. Jejunostomy is an opening between the jejunum and abdominal wall, and cecostomy is an opening into the cecum. The term 'colostomy' specifically refers to the surgical procedure where a part of the colon is brought through the abdominal wall to create a stoma, allowing feces to leave the body. Therefore, the correct answer is colostomy as it accurately describes the opening between the colon and the abdominal wall, distinct from the other options.

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