NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:
- A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.
2. Which of the following injuries, presented by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest is the highest priority injury. This type of injury can lead to lung collapse and mediastinal shift, potentially resulting in death if left untreated. Treating an obstructed airway or a chest wound takes precedence over addressing hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) guides care decisions in prioritizing life-threatening situations. An open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to a stab wound to the chest. An open leg fracture may lead to significant blood loss but is not immediately life-threatening. An open head injury requires assessment and intervention but does not impact airway, breathing, or circulation directly. Traumatic amputation of a thumb is a serious injury but can be managed after addressing more life-threatening conditions.
3. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?
- A. Disorientation
- B. Sensory changes
- C. Inability to produce sound
- D. Hearing deficits
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.
4. How can the nurse promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension?
- A. Encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual.
- B. Immobilizing the client.
- C. Applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area.
- D. Administering pain medication as needed to ease the muscle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension, the nurse should consider applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area. These interventions can help alleviate pain associated with muscle tension, pain, or spasms. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual may exacerbate the pain. Choice B is incorrect as immobilizing the client may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to further complications. Choice D is also incorrect because while pain medication can be used, it is not the first-line treatment for muscle pain, spasms, and tension.
5. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?
- A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
- B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
- C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
- D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.
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