Nursing Elites

1. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?

• A. a client receiving diuretic therapy
• B. a client with an ileostomy
• C. a client with metabolic alkalosis
• D. a client with renal disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can further burden the kidneys and worsen the condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels. Therefore, these clients should actually be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium to maintain adequate levels and prevent complications associated with hypokalemia.

2. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

3. A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?

• A. herpes
• B. chlamydia
• C. gonorrhea
• D. syphilis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice C) and syphilis (choice D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.

4. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

5. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's blood pressure is 88/50?

• A. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
• B. Enalapril (Vasotec)
• C. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril (Vasotec) is the correct answer. It is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can further lower blood pressure. Given that the client's blood pressure is already low at 88/50, administering Enalapril could exacerbate hypotension and compromise perfusion to vital organs. Rosuvastatin (Crestor), Digoxin (Lanoxin), and Clopidogrel (Plavix) are not contraindicated in the context of low blood pressure and may be administered safely.

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