Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

2. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?

• A. cool, clammy skin
• B. bradycardia
• C. tachycardia
• D. eupnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.

3. Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?

• A. Kegel
• B. resistance
• C. passive
• D. stretching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control. Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (Choice C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (Choice D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.

4. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?

• A. Allergy to shellfish
• B. Has a cardiac pacemaker
• C. A diabetic
• D. No IV access

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.

5. A physician orders a serum creatinine for a hospitalized client. The nurse should explain to the client and his family that this test:

• A. is normal if the level is 4.0 to 5.5 mg/dl.
• B. can be elevated with increased protein intake.
• C. is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN.
• D. reflects the fluid volume status of a person

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level should be 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl, and it does not vary with increased protein intake, so it is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN. Choice A is incorrect as a serum creatinine level of 4.0 to 5.5 mg/dl is not normal. Choice B is incorrect as serum creatinine is not affected by increased protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as serum creatinine primarily reflects renal function, not fluid volume status.

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