a patient has experienced a severe third degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours which phase of burn management is the patient in
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.

2. The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.

3. Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.

4. What type of cells create exocrine secretions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acinar cells are responsible for creating exocrine secretions, such as enzymes and digestive juices. Alpha cells are found in the pancreas and are responsible for producing glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, and plasma cells are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is acinar cells, as they specifically produce exocrine secretions.

5. A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, “Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?” The nurse should state:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.

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