Nursing Elites

1. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

• A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
• B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
• C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
• D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

2. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:

• A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
• B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
• C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
• D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.

3. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

5. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?

• A. Biot's respirations
• B. Sucking sounds during respirations
• C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
• D. Hypotension and bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.

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