NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?
- A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
- B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
- C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
- D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.
2. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
- A. Cushingoid appearance
- B. Alopecia
- C. Temporary or permanent sterility
- D. Pathologic fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperkalemia.
- C. hypercalcemia.
- D. fluid volume deficit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.
4. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?
- A. Biot's respirations
- B. Sucking sounds during respirations
- C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
- D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.
5. A healthcare provider is screening patients for various vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?
- A. Diphtheria
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Mumps
- D. Tetanus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Mumps. The Mumps vaccine, along with the Rubella vaccine, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of affecting the developing fetus. Diphtheria, Hepatitis B, and Tetanus vaccines are considered safe during pregnancy and are often recommended to protect both the pregnant individual and the developing fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
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