Nursing Elites

1. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?

• A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
• B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
• C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
• D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.

2. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:

• A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
• B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.

3. Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?

• A. All males should perform a testicular exam after a warm bath or shower.
• B. Testicular exams should be performed on a daily basis.
• C. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is a normal finding.
• D. Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for testicular cancer education is that testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower as it relaxes the scrotum and makes the exam easier. Testicular exams should be done monthly by all men starting around age 15, not after the age of 30 (Choice A) or on a daily basis (Choice B), which is unnecessary and may lead to unnecessary anxiety. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is not a normal finding (Choice C) and should be reported to a healthcare provider for further evaluation.

4. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
• B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
• C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
• D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

5. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

• A. inspection for visible pulsations.
• B. palpation of thrill.
• C. percussion for dullness.
• D. auscultation of blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

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