NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?
- A. Morphine
- B. Atropine
- C. Procardia
- D. Digitalis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.
2. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
- A. metabolic alkalosis
- B. homeostasis
- C. respiratory acidosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within the normal range, indicating a state of balance and homeostasis. The pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), the PCO2 is normal (35-45 mmHg), and the HCO3 level is also normal (22-26 mEq/L). Choice A, 'metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect because the pH, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are not indicative of metabolic alkalosis. Choice C, 'respiratory acidosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 values are not elevated. Choice D, 'respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 levels are not decreased. Therefore, the ABG values provided do not correspond to any acid-base disturbance, confirming that the patient is in a state of homeostasis.
3. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
4. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
- B. Hold medications and notify the physician
- C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
- D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
- A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
- B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
- C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
- D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.
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