NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?
- A. Changes in emotion and behavior
- B. Monitor loss of hearing
- C. Observe appetite and vision deficits
- D. Changes in facial muscle control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.
2. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?
- A. Stage I pressure ulcer
- B. Stage II pressure ulcer
- C. Stage III pressure ulcer
- D. Stage IV pressure ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.
3. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
4. An RN on your unit has had an argument with the family of a client regarding the way in which the RN has changed the client's dressing. The family is adamant that the dressing change was performed incorrectly. The RN insists that sterile technique was observed. As an RN manager, what is the best response?
- A. Meet with the family member and the RN to discuss the disagreement regarding the dressing change.
- B. Talk to the family member and assure them that the nurse followed the hospital procedure.
- C. Discuss the dressing change procedure with the RN and compare it to a current textbook.
- D. Change the RN's assignment the next day to another client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When conflict occurs, it is best to meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. This approach allows each party to hear what the other is saying and prevents the RN manager from being caught in the middle. By facilitating a discussion between the family member and the RN, they can work together to find a resolution or the manager can mediate. This promotes open communication, understanding, and collaboration. Option A is the correct choice because it emphasizes addressing the conflict directly and seeking a mutual understanding. Option B is incorrect because just assuring the family member may not address the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve the family member in the resolution process. Option D is inappropriate as it doesn't address the conflict but rather avoids it by changing the RN's assignment.
5. When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:
- A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
- B. an increase in protein in the diet.
- C. vitamins A and C.
- D. an increase in calcium in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.
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