NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?
- A. Changes in emotion and behavior
- B. Monitor loss of hearing
- C. Observe appetite and vision deficits
- D. Changes in facial muscle control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.
2. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?
- A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
- C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
- D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.
3. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?
- A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
- B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
- C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
- D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.
5. Which of the following microorganisms is easily transmitted from client to client on the hands of healthcare workers?
- A. mycobacterium tuberculosis
- B. clostridium tetani
- C. staphylococcus aureus
- D. human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus microorganisms are ubiquitous and easily transmitted by healthcare workers who fail to conduct routine hand washing between clients. Staphylococcus aureus can reside on the skin and be transferred from one client to another if proper hand hygiene is not practiced. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is mainly transmitted through the airborne route, clostridium tetani is usually acquired through exposure to soil or dirt contaminated with tetanus spores, and human immunodeficiency virus is not easily transmitted through casual contact or on the hands of healthcare workers.
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