Nursing Elites

1. After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?

• A. Changes in emotion and behavior
• B. Monitor loss of hearing
• C. Observe appetite and vision deficits
• D. Changes in facial muscle control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.

2. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

3. Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

• A. an antihyperglycemic agent.
• B. a hypoglycemic agent.
• C. an insulin analogue.
• D. a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

4. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. Granulocyte transfusion is not routinely indicated to prevent infection in neutropenic clients. While neutrophils are essential in fighting infections and are beneficial in selected populations of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients who do not respond to antibiotics and are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production, routine granulocyte transfusion is not recommended. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a severely neutropenic client. Prohibiting fresh flowers and plants helps reduce the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens. Avoiding rectal suppositories minimizes the risk of introducing harmful bacteria. Excluding raw vegetables from the diet reduces the likelihood of foodborne infections.

5. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)

• A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
• B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
• C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
• D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.

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