Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.

2. A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:

• A. The baby will eventually take to the breast.
• B. I can prepare a bottle if you want to try that.
• C. A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.
• D. I can arrange for the charge nurse to come and talk to you about breastfeeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
• C. Change in LOC
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.

4. A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?

• A. Lower extremity edema
• B. Sensory changes in the upper extremities
• C. Increased occurrence of fractures
• D. Decreased peripheral blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

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