Nursing Elites

1. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

2. Which task would be appropriate for the LPN to perform?

• A. Changing a colostomy bag.
• B. Hanging a new bag of TPN.
• C. Drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line.
• D. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changing a colostomy bag. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care, including assisting with activities of daily living and certain medical procedures like changing ostomy bags. Hanging a new bag of TPN and drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line are tasks that require a higher level of training and are typically performed by RNs due to their complexity and potential risks. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client is usually the responsibility of an RN as it involves close monitoring, assessment of the client's condition, and the administration of potent medications that require a higher level of clinical judgment and expertise.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient in the rehab unit during shift change. The patient has sustained a TBI 3 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most distinguishing characteristic of a neurological disturbance?

• A. LOC (level of consciousness)
• B. Short-term memory
• C. Babinski sign
• D. Clonus sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Level of consciousness (LOC) is the most crucial indicator of impaired neurological function. Changes in LOC can signify various neurological conditions, including traumatic brain injury. Short-term memory, while important, is not the most distinguishing characteristic of neurological disturbances. Babinski and Clonus signs are specific neurological tests that can provide information about upper motor neuron lesions but are not as generalizable as changes in LOC for assessing overall neurological status.

4. During a home health visit, a nurse consults with a male patient diagnosed with CAD and COPD who is taking Ventolin, Azmacort, Aspirin, and Theophylline and complains of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort. What should the nurse do?

• A. Contact the patient's physician immediately
• B. Recommend the patient lie on his right side
• C. Advise the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day
• D. Suggest holding the drug Azmacort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the patient's physician immediately. The patient's symptoms of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort could indicate theophylline toxicity, a potentially serious condition. It is crucial to consult the physician promptly to address this issue. Option B, recommending the patient lie on his right side, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and is not a priority. Option C, advising the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day, is inappropriate as the symptoms may indicate an urgent concern. Option D, suggesting holding the drug Azmacort, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and should not be done without consulting the physician first.

5. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

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