Nursing Elites

1. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

2. For a client with suspected appendicitis, where should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

• A. upper right
• B. upper left
• C. lower right
• D. lower left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic symptom of appendicitis. This tenderness is known as McBurney's point, which is located in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the tenderness associated with appendicitis is typically localized to the lower-right quadrant.

3. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
• B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
• C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
• D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.

4. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

• A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
• B. ondansetron (Zofran)
• C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:

• A. urinary excess
• B. hyperpituitarism
• C. urinary deficit
• D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.

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