which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic aids in the medical chart t4 cell count per deciliter
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.

2. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.

3. The nurse is providing post-operative care to the craniotomy client. Diabetes insipidus is suspected when the client's urine output suddenly increases significantly. Which action takes highest priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check a blood pressure. Diabetes insipidus can lead to dehydration and potential hypovolemic shock due to excessive urine output. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to assess the client's circulatory status and detect signs of shock early. Checking the blood pressure will provide essential information on perfusion, which is vital in this situation. Continuing to monitor urine output, checking a pulse, or assessing the level of consciousness are important but not as high a priority as evaluating the blood pressure in a potentially critical situation like suspected diabetes insipidus.

4. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can further burden the kidneys and worsen the condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels. Therefore, these clients should actually be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium to maintain adequate levels and prevent complications associated with hypokalemia.

5. A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid which of the following foods?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid foods high in calcium to prevent the formation of more stones. Cheese is high in calcium, so it should be avoided. Lettuce, apples, and broccoli are not typically associated with high calcium content and are safe options for individuals with urinary tract calculi. Therefore, the correct answer is cheese. Choices A, C, and D are not high in calcium and are safe for consumption by individuals with urinary tract calculi.

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