Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)

• A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
• B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
• C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
• D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.

2. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?

• A. 4 years old
• B. 5 years old
• C. 6 years old
• D. 7 years old

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.

3. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?

• A. "I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old."?
• B. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old."?
• C. "I have a strong family history of gastric cancer."?
• D. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.

4. When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?

• A. switch to a stronger dose of the same medication.
• B. discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
• C. continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.
• D. use a combination of medications for better relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.

5. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?

• A. "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."?
• B. "This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can't lose weight."?
• C. "The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption."?
• D. "A VLCD contains very little protein."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.

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