when caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

2. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:

Correct answer: C.

Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.

3. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.

4. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

5. A client is being taught about self-administration of Haldol 15 mg po hs. For which side effect/s should the client seek medical attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is restlessness and muscle spasms. Haldol, an antipsychotic medication, can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as muscle spasms and restlessness. These side effects can be serious and should prompt the client to seek medical attention. Shortness of breath, fatigue, dry mouth, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with Haldol use, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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