Nursing Elites

1. When auscultating breath sounds, the nurse auscultates over the following locations:

• A. Trachea and lateral areas of thoracic cage
• B. Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields
• C. The mid section as well as the lateral section of the lungs
• D. The mid-clavicular to mid-axillary lines comparing side to side

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anterior and posterior aspects of all lung fields. When auscultating breath sounds, it is essential to listen to the front (anterior) and back (posterior) aspects of all lung fields. This comprehensive approach allows for a thorough assessment of breath sounds throughout the lungs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is too limited as it only focuses on the trachea and lateral areas, not covering all lung fields. Choice C is also too limited, referring to specific sections of the lungs (mid section and lateral section). Choice D is incorrect as it suggests comparing specific lines on the chest (mid-clavicular to mid-axillary), which is not a standard practice for auscultating breath sounds.

2. The nurse observes a nursing assistant performing AM care for a client with a new leg cast. Which action by the assistant will the nurse intervene?

• A. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hand
• B. Covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills
• C. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing
• D. Elevating the cased leg on two pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills. Covering the leg with a blanket can prevent the evaporation of heat from the new cast, which can lead to skin irritation or discomfort. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hand is appropriate as it helps in providing support and prevents unnecessary pressure on the cast. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing is also acceptable to protect the area from getting wet. Elevating the cased leg on two pillows helps reduce swelling and promotes circulation, making it a suitable action.

3. The anemias most often associated with pregnancy are:

• A. folic acid and iron deficiency.
• B. folic acid deficiency and thalassemia.
• C. iron deficiency and thalassemia.
• D. thalassemia and B12 deficiency.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia are the most common types of anemia associated with pregnancy. Approximately 50% of pregnant women experience this type of anemia. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy typically results from the increased plasma volume, rather than a decrease in iron levels. Moreover, if a woman has iron deficiency anemia before pregnancy, it often worsens during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency is also prevalent during pregnancy due to the increased demand for this nutrient to support fetal development. Thalassemia and B12 deficiency, while types of anemia, are not as commonly associated with pregnancy compared to folic acid and iron deficiency anemia, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. Granulocyte transfusion is not routinely indicated to prevent infection in neutropenic clients. While neutrophils are essential in fighting infections and are beneficial in selected populations of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients who do not respond to antibiotics and are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production, routine granulocyte transfusion is not recommended. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a severely neutropenic client. Prohibiting fresh flowers and plants helps reduce the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens. Avoiding rectal suppositories minimizes the risk of introducing harmful bacteria. Excluding raw vegetables from the diet reduces the likelihood of foodborne infections.

5. Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?

• A. Type I diabetes
• B. Alcoholism
• C. Leukemia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.

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