Nursing Elites

1. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the doctor
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Do nothing
• D. Remove the drain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

2. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

3. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?

• A. temperature of 102�F and a productive cough
• B. arterial blood gases (ABGs) with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
• C. trachea deviating to the right
• D. barrel-chested appearance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.

4. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?

• A. Biot's respirations
• B. Sucking sounds during respirations
• C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
• D. Hypotension and bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.

5. The client with ulcerative colitis calls the clinic and reports increasing abdominal pain and increased frequency of loose stools. He asks to clarify what type of diet he is to follow. Which diet is best for clients with ulcerative colitis?

• A. High vitamin
• B. High calorie
• C. Low sugar
• D. Low fiber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low fiber.' Clients with ulcerative colitis should follow a low-residue diet, which means consuming low fiber to reduce the frequency and volume of stools, helping to alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea. High fiber diets can worsen the condition by stimulating bowel movements. Choice A, 'High vitamin,' is incorrect as the focus is on fiber content rather than vitamins. Choice B, 'High calorie,' is not specifically recommended for ulcerative colitis and may not address the symptoms effectively. Choice C, 'Low sugar,' does not directly address the dietary needs of clients with ulcerative colitis as the issue is more related to fiber intake than sugar consumption.

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