Nursing Elites

1. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the doctor
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Do nothing
• D. Remove the drain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

2. Which infection control measure is the priority for the nurse to implement in the care provided for a child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis?

• A. Place the child in a private room
• B. Gowns and masks must be worn by all personnel in the child's room
• C. Visitors are restricted to parents only
• D. Hand washing is required by all personnel and visitors having contact with the child

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority control measure for the nurse to implement in caring for a child with bacterial meningitis is ensuring that gowns and masks are worn by all personnel in the child's room. This measure is crucial as the child with bacterial meningitis is contagious for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics, necessitating airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers and other patients. Placing the child in a private room (Choice A) is important but secondary to preventing infection transmission. Restricting visitors to parents only (Choice C) is also significant but not as critical as ensuring proper infection control measures. While hand washing (Choice D) is essential, the immediate need to prevent airborne transmission in the child's room takes precedence.

3. A client with stress incontinence should be advised:

• A. to avoid relying solely on absorbent undergarments.
• B. that Kegel exercises might help.
• C. that effective surgical treatments are available.
• D. that behavioral therapy can be beneficial.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises, which involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, can be beneficial for stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice A is incorrect as it is important for the client to know that absorbent undergarments can be used as a temporary solution but do not address the underlying issue. Choice C is incorrect as while surgical treatments are available, they are usually considered when conservative treatments like exercises and behavioral therapy have not been successful. Choice D is incorrect as behavioral therapy can be beneficial in managing stress incontinence through lifestyle and dietary modifications, bladder training, and more, contrary to the statement that it is ineffective.

4. A mother of a newborn notices a nurse placing liquid in her baby's eyes. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about the need for eyedrops following birth?

• A. Eyedrops following birth help reduce the risk of eye infection.
• B. Eyedrops are required by law.
• C. Eyedrops will keep the eye moist.
• D. Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.' This statement is inaccurate because while laws do require the placement of eyedrops, physicians indicate a specific timeframe for their administration. Choice A is correct because eyedrops following birth do help reduce the risk of eye infection by preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that eyedrops are mandated solely by law, without considering medical reasons. Choice C is accurate as eyedrops do help keep the eye moist, preventing dryness and discomfort.

5. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

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