Nursing Elites

1. During a petit mal seizure in the clinic, what should be the highest priority?

• A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
• B. Call a code
• C. Contact the patient's physician
• D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a petit mal seizure, the highest priority is to provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area. This action aims to prevent injuries to the patient during the seizure. While calling a code or contacting the patient's physician may be necessary at some point, immediate safety measures take precedence. Preventing excessive movement of the extremities is relevant but ensuring a safe environment is crucial to avoid harm during the seizure.

2. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.

3. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

• A. quickening
• B. ophthalmia neonatorum
• C. pica
• D. prolapsed umbilical cord

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

4. A 3-day post-operative client with a Left Knee Replacement is complaining of being chilled and nauseated. Her TPR is 100.4-94-28 and Blood Pressure is 146/90. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Call the surgeon immediately.
• B. Administer Extra Strength Tylenol per orders.
• C. Assess the surgical site.
• D. Offer extra blankets and increase fluids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to call the surgeon immediately. The client's symptoms of being chilled and nauseated, along with an elevated temperature (100.4�F), could indicate an infection following the knee replacement surgery. In this scenario, prompt action is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Calling the surgeon allows for further assessment, possible diagnostic tests, and appropriate interventions to be initiated. Administering Tylenol or offering blankets and fluids may temporarily alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Assessing the surgical site is important but not as urgent as involving the surgeon in this situation.

5. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Ataxia
• C. Salivation elevation
• D. Diplopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.

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