which symptom is the client who overdosed on barbiturates most likely to exhibit
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which symptoms is the client who overdosed on barbiturates most likely to exhibit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradypnea and bradycardia. Barbiturates are central nervous system (CNS) depressants, which will slow down the respiratory rate (bradypnea) and heart rate (bradycardia). Choice B, hyperthermia and drowsiness, is incorrect as barbiturate overdose typically does not cause hyperthermia but rather hypothermia. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech (Choice C) are more indicative of stimulant overdoses rather than CNS depressants like barbiturates. Tachycardia and psychosis (Choice D) are also not typically seen in barbiturate overdose, as these drugs tend to depress the CNS rather than cause symptoms of increased heart rate or psychosis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.

3. What is the best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the D-dimer test. In DIC, numerous small clots form throughout the body and are rapidly broken down. D-dimer measures a specific fibrin split product and is the most specific test for DIC. Platelet count (Choice A) is decreased in DIC due to consumption, but it is not specific for diagnosing DIC. Prothrombin time (PT - Choice B) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT - Choice C) are both elevated in DIC because clotting factors have been used up, but they are not specific for DIC as they can be elevated in other conditions as well.

4. When choosing a needle gauge for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy, which of the following gauges would you choose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 22 gauge. A 22-gauge needle is recommended for school-age children, toddlers, and adolescents due to their muscle mass and tolerance. In infants, a smaller gauge (23-25) is preferred as their muscles are less developed and more sensitive. Choice A, 27 gauge, is too thin for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy. Choice B, 25 gauge, is more suitable for infants than for a 12-year-old. Choice D, 20 gauge, is too thick and not typically used for intramuscular injections in children.

5. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.

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