Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is not a clinical sign of diabetes mellitus?

• A. Polyphagia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Lower extremity edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyphagia, polyuria, and metabolic acidosis are common clinical signs of diabetes mellitus. Polyphagia refers to excessive hunger, polyuria is excessive urination, and metabolic acidosis can occur due to poorly controlled diabetes. Lower extremity edema, on the other hand, is not a typical clinical sign of diabetes mellitus. Edema in the lower extremities is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease rather than diabetes mellitus.

3. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

4. What essential assessment must be performed for clients with implanted dialysis access devices?

• A. Color and capillary refill
• B. Patency and pulse
• C. Thrill and bruit
• D. Trousseau's and temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! When assessing clients with implanted dialysis access devices, it is crucial to palpate for the thrill, which indicates blood flow, and auscultate for the bruit, a humming sound, to ensure the patency of the access device. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not specific assessments related to dialysis access devices. Checking color and capillary refill, pulse, Trousseau's sign, and temperature are important assessments in other contexts but not specifically for monitoring implanted dialysis access devices.

5. After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?

• A. Changes in emotion and behavior
• B. Monitor loss of hearing
• C. Observe appetite and vision deficits
• D. Changes in facial muscle control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.

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