Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?

• A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
• B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
• C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
• D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.

2. While assessing a patient who has undergone a recent CABG, the nurse notices a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Recommend a dermatological consult to the physician.
• B. Note the location of the mole and contact the physician via telephone.
• C. Note the location of the mole and follow-up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call.
• D. Remove the mole with a sharp debridement technique, following approval from the charge nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should note the location of the mole and follow up with the attending physician through the medical record and a phone call. This action is appropriate because a mole with irregular edges and a bluish color raises concern for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Recommending a dermatological consult (Choice A) might delay the evaluation and management of the mole. Contacting the physician via telephone (Choice B) may not provide a documented record of the observation. Removing the mole without proper evaluation (Choice D) could be dangerous and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.

3. What could be a possible cause for the symptoms experienced by the client in Question 28?

• A. iron deficiency
• B. folate deficiency
• C. peptic ulcer
• D. iron overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Given the client's symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness, along with her gender and fad dieting, the most likely cause is iron deficiency. Iron deficiency commonly presents with these symptoms due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Folate deficiency would typically present with different symptoms such as mouth sores and changes in skin, not fitting the client's presentation. Peptic ulcer would manifest with abdominal pain, not primarily with the symptoms described. Iron overload would present with symptoms such as joint pain and fatigue, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

4. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:

• A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
• B. red blood cells are affected first.
• C. folic acid levels are normal.
• D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.

5. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.

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