Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?

• A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
• B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
• C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
• D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.

2. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

• A. High calorie, low protein
• B. High protein, high calorie
• C. Low fat, low sodium
• D. High calorie, low sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

4. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

• A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
• B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
• C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
• D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

5. A 22-year-old patient in a mental health lock-down unit under suicide watch appears happy about being discharged. Which of the following is probably happening?

• A. The patient is excited about being around family again.
• B. The patient's suicide plan has probably progressed.
• C. The patient's plans for the future have been clarified.
• D. The patient's mood is improving.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is concerning that a patient under suicide watch is happy about being discharged as it may indicate that the patient's suicide plan has advanced. This change in behavior should be taken seriously as it can signal an increased risk of self-harm. Choices A, C, and D are less likely as the patient's happiness about discharge in this context is more indicative of a worsening situation rather than positive outcomes like being around family, clarifying future plans, or improving mood.

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