a nurse is assigned to do pre operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning what teaching strategy would be
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.

2. The client with peripheral vascular disease is reviewing self-care measures. Which of the following statements indicates proper self-care measures?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, "I have my wife examine the soles of my feet each day."? Clients with peripheral vascular disease should examine their feet daily for any signs of redness, dryness, or cuts. If the client is unable to do this themselves due to decreased sensation in their feet, a caregiver or family member should assist. Soaking feet in a hot tub should be avoided as the client may not be able to sense if the water is too hot, potentially causing burns. Walking barefoot can lead to injuries, so wearing shoes or slippers is recommended to minimize trauma. While quitting smoking is a positive step, using chewing tobacco can still constrict blood vessels, adversely affecting circulation in the extremities.

3. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

4. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

5. What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly happens when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration, but it can also occur with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses occur after the administration and absorption of drugs, not prior to it.

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