a nurse is assigned to do pre operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning what teaching strategy would be
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.

2. A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus requires education on managing their condition. Choice C is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of a comprehensive approach involving both diet and exercise. This holistic approach is crucial in managing blood sugar levels and overall health for individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect as it provides misleading information by suggesting that the client can eat anything as long as it doesn't contain sugar, which is not accurate for diabetes management. Choice B is not the best option as it focuses solely on weight loss rather than addressing the holistic needs of a diabetic individual. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests eliminating all salt, fat, and sugar, which is an extreme approach and not a realistic or balanced way to manage diabetes.

3. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

4. When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.

5. A patient who has delivered an 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing thrush, a fungal infection, which can present as white patches on the breast that persist. Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat thrush. Therefore, the correct answer is Nystatin. Atropine is not indicated for this condition and is used for different purposes. Amoxil is an antibiotic and would not be effective against a fungal infection like thrush. Lortab is a pain medication and is not appropriate for treating thrush.

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