NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?
- A. Verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day
- B. Provide a pre-operative booklet in Braille
- C. Provide an audio recording for the client
- D. Have the blind patient's family member assist with the instruction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.
2. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?
- A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
- B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
- C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
- D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.
3. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, "I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight."? Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
- B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
- C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
- D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Option D acknowledges the client's autonomy and decision-making process, fostering a therapeutic relationship. Options A, B, and C are insensitive and unprofessional. Option A implies a financial incentive for weight loss, which can be perceived as disrespectful and trivializing the client's concerns. Option B suggests an alternative method without considering the client's reasons for choosing surgery, potentially invalidating her experiences. Option C recommends a specific diet without addressing the client's concerns or choices, neglecting her autonomy in decision-making.
4. Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?
- A. Alpha tocopherol (vitamin E)
- B. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
- C. Calcitriol (vitamin D)
- D. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver and suspects that the client may be developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment by the nurse suggests that the client is developing this complication?
- A. Asterixis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Lethargy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremors, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy. It is a flapping tremor of the hands when the wrists are extended, indicating neurological impairment. Hypertension and Kussmaul respirations are not directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Lethargy is a common symptom but not a specific sign that suggests the development of hepatic encephalopathy.
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