a nurse is assigned to do pre operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning what teaching strategy would be
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.

2. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

3. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

4. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

5. A one-month-old infant in the neonatal intensive care unit is dying. The parents request that the nurse administer an opioid analgesic to their infant, who is crying weakly. The infant's heart rate is 68 beats per minute, and the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. The infant is on room air, and the oxygen saturation is 92%. The nurse's response is based on which of the following principles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All patients, regardless of age, have the right to die with dignity and be free from pain. In this case, the parents' request for an opioid analgesic to relieve the child's distress aligns with the principles of palliative care and ensuring comfort. Assisted suicide involves a conscious decision by the individual, which is not applicable to a 1-month-old infant. Both the nurse and the parents have an ethical duty to ensure the infant's comfort and well-being. Withholding opioid analgesia solely to hasten death is not appropriate, as providing pain relief is a crucial aspect of end-of-life care. Opioids can be administered to dying patients at any age to alleviate suffering without the intention of hastening death. Therefore, providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the decision to administer analgesia in this scenario is based on the best interest and comfort of the infant, not concerns about assisted suicide or hastening death. The ethical consideration is to provide compassionate care and alleviate suffering.

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