Nursing Elites

1. A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, “Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?” The nurse should state:

• A. Potassium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.

2. Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?

• A. Wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant
• B. Wearing the same gloves for assessments of clients in the same room
• C. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the urine bag and nasogastric canister of an infected client
• D. Donning a gown when responding to a request by the family to check the IV pump on a client with rotavirus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.

3. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:

• A. tachycardia and hyperthermia.
• B. bradycardia and hypothermia.
• C. a large goiter.
• D. a calm, quiet client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.

4. What are the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) in infants and children?

• A. Reye's syndrome.
• B. cholinergic effects.
• C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
• D. nausea and diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is paradoxical CNS stimulation. First-generation OTC antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine, can lead to paradoxical CNS stimulation in infants and children. This phenomenon is characterized by symptoms like excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion, rather than the expected sedative effect. Due to this unexpected response, these antihistamines are used less frequently in pediatric populations. Reye's syndrome is a rare systemic response to a virus and is not a side effect of antihistamines. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not typically exhibit cholinergic effects. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon side effects of these antihistamines and are less commonly observed than paradoxical CNS stimulation.

5. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

• A. High calorie, low protein
• B. High protein, high calorie
• C. Low fat, low sodium
• D. High calorie, low sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

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