a 55 year old female asks a nurse the following which mineralvitamin is the most important to prevent progression of osteoporosis the nurse should sta
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, “Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?” The nurse should state:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.

2. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

3. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.

4. Herbal therapy has several indications for use. Primarily, herbal therapy is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'used to treat many common complaints and diseases.' Herbal therapy is commonly used to address a variety of health issues and ailments by utilizing natural remedies derived from plants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because herbal therapy's primary purpose is not to promote specific diets, act as an adjunct to medications, or create specific dietary restrictions, but rather to provide alternative treatment options for various health conditions.

5. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

Similar Questions

Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?
The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?
Which action by a graduate nurse would require the charge nurse to intervene?
A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?
A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses