Nursing Elites

1. Which task would be appropriate for the LPN to perform?

• A. Changing a colostomy bag.
• B. Hanging a new bag of TPN.
• C. Drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line.
• D. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changing a colostomy bag. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care, including assisting with activities of daily living and certain medical procedures like changing ostomy bags. Hanging a new bag of TPN and drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line are tasks that require a higher level of training and are typically performed by RNs due to their complexity and potential risks. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client is usually the responsibility of an RN as it involves close monitoring, assessment of the client's condition, and the administration of potent medications that require a higher level of clinical judgment and expertise.

2. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

3. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
• B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
• C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
• D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

• A. Herpes
• B. Scleroderma
• C. Dermatitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.

5. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Neutrophil count of 60%
• B. Basophil count of 0.5%
• C. Monocyte count of 2%
• D. Reticulocyte count of 1%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.

Similar Questions