Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand. The area is pale and mottled but has good capillary refill. What is the nurse's best action at this time?

• A. Warm the room
• B. Submerge the hand in warm water
• C. Order a K pad and apply to hand
• D. Have the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand, exhibiting pale and mottled skin but good capillary refill, is to warm the room. By warming the room, the nurse helps promote circulation and maintain a conducive environment for healing. Submerging the hand in warm water can pose a risk of injury or infection to the graft site. Ordering a K pad and applying it to the hand may not be necessary at this time and could potentially cause harm. Having the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow is also not recommended as it may interfere with the healing process of the skin graft.

2. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?

• A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
• B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
• C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
• D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.

3. Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?

• A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
• B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
• C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
• D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

5. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

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