Nursing Elites

1. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?

• A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
• B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
• C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
• D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.

2. When dressing a severe burn to the right hand, it is important for the nurse to:

• A. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement
• B. Wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing
• C. Open blisters to allow drainage prior to dressing
• D. Allow the client to do as much of the dressing change as possible

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dressing a severe burn to the hand, it is crucial to wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing, which can lead to contractures and impaired function. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement is not recommended for burn wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal. Opening blisters can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. Allowing the client to perform the dressing change may not ensure proper care and can lead to complications.

3. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?

• A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Family history of colon polyps
• C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
• D. History of colon surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.

4. Which symptoms is the client who overdosed on barbiturates most likely to exhibit?

• A. Bradypnea and bradycardia
• B. Hyperthermia and drowsiness
• C. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech
• D. Tachycardia and psychosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradypnea and bradycardia. Barbiturates are central nervous system (CNS) depressants, which will slow down the respiratory rate (bradypnea) and heart rate (bradycardia). Choice B, hyperthermia and drowsiness, is incorrect as barbiturate overdose typically does not cause hyperthermia but rather hypothermia. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech (Choice C) are more indicative of stimulant overdoses rather than CNS depressants like barbiturates. Tachycardia and psychosis (Choice D) are also not typically seen in barbiturate overdose, as these drugs tend to depress the CNS rather than cause symptoms of increased heart rate or psychosis.

5. A client is experiencing chest pain. Which statement made by the client indicates angina rather than a myocardial infarction?

• A. "I became dizzy when I stood up."?
• B. "I was nauseated and began vomiting."?
• C. "The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."?
• D. "The pain began with a migraine and progressed to numbness in my left arm."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: '"The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."? This statement suggests angina rather than a myocardial infarction because angina is typically triggered by exertion or stress and relieved by rest. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with a myocardial infarction. Choices A and D are not typical symptoms of either angina or myocardial infarction.

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