NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Gently rub the injection site after removing the needle
- B. Have the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes
- C. Remove the needle and engage the needle safety device
- D. Apply heat to the injection site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.
2. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?
- A. metastatic liver cancer
- B. gram-negative septicemia
- C. pernicious anemia
- D. iron-deficiency anemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.
3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
- A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
- B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
- C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
- D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
4. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?
- A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.
- B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.
- C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
- D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.
5. In a client with asthma who develops respiratory acidosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?
- A. normal
- B. elevated
- C. low
- D. unrelated to the pH
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the serum potassium level is expected to be elevated. This occurs because potassium shifts from cells into the bloodstream as a compensatory mechanism to maintain acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A normal potassium level is not expected in respiratory acidosis. A low potassium level is more commonly associated with alkalosis, not acidosis. The potassium level is indeed related to pH changes in respiratory acidosis, leading to the expected elevation.
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