NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Gently rub the injection site after removing the needle
- B. Have the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes
- C. Remove the needle and engage the needle safety device
- D. Apply heat to the injection site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.
2. When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:
- A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
- B. an increase in protein in the diet.
- C. vitamins A and C.
- D. an increase in calcium in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.
3. One day postoperative, the client complains of dyspnea, and his respiratory rate (RR) is 35, slightly labored, and there are no breath sounds in the lower-right base. The nurse should suspect:
- A. cor pulmonale.
- B. atelectasis.
- C. pulmonary embolism.
- D. cardiac tamponade.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is atelectasis. The absence of breath sounds in the lower-right base is a key finding in atelectasis, which occurs when a portion of the lung collapses. The other symptoms such as dyspnea and increased respiratory rate could be present in various pulmonary conditions. Cor pulmonale is typically associated with chronic lung disease, pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain, and cardiac tamponade manifests with Beck's triad of hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds.
4. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
- A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
- B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
- C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
- D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
5. A client is admitted to the floor with vomiting and diarrhea for three days. She is receiving IV fluids at 200cc/hr via pump. A priority action for the nurse would be:
- A. Obtaining Intake and Output.
- B. Frequent lung assessments.
- C. Vital signs every shift.
- D. Monitoring the IV site for infiltration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct priority action for the nurse would be monitoring the IV site for infiltration. The client is receiving IV fluids at a rapid rate, making it crucial to ensure that the IV site is intact and not causing any complications like infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage. While frequent lung assessments are important for detecting signs of fluid overload, in this case, ensuring the IV site's integrity takes precedence. Obtaining Intake and Output is relevant but not the priority over monitoring the IV site. Vital signs are essential, but given the situation, the immediate concern is the IV site's condition to prevent complications.
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