after injecting enoxaparin lovenox subcutaneously into the abdomen which action should the nurse take
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.

2. The schizophrenic client tells you that they are "Jesus"? and "there to save the world"?. They are reading from the Bible and warning others of hell and damnation. The whole unit is getting upset and several are beginning to cry. What should the nurse do at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to set limits with the client and redirect them to their room. The client's behavior is disruptive and causing distress among others in the unit. Sending the client to their room allows them to cool down and prevents further agitation among other patients. Removing the client from the current environment can help de-escalate the situation. Asking the client to share how they know they are "Jesus"? (Choice D) may further agitate the situation and is not the immediate priority. Explaining to the client that not all people are Christians (Choice B) may not effectively address the disruptive behavior. Removing the Bible from the client (Choice C) without addressing the underlying issue may escalate the situation further.

3. A client returns to the nursing unit post-thoracotomy with two chest tubes in place connected to a drainage device. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the upper chest tube is placed to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Remove air from the pleural space.' When a client has two chest tubes in place post-thoracotomy, the upper chest tube is typically positioned to remove air from the pleural space. Air rises, so placing the tube at the top allows for efficient removal of air that has accumulated in the pleural cavity. Choice B, creating access for irrigating the chest cavity, is incorrect as chest tubes are not primarily used for irrigation. Choice C, evacuating secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli, is incorrect as chest tubes are not designed for this purpose. Choice D, draining blood and fluid from the pleural space, is also incorrect as the upper chest tube in this scenario is specifically for removing air, not blood or fluid.

4. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

5. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

Similar Questions

Which deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?
Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?
The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:
After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?
A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses