Nursing Elites

1. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

• A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
• B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
• C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
• D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

2. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

3. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.

4. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
• B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
• C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
• D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is appropriate as it demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Ginger is commonly used to alleviate nausea, particularly in Asian cultures. Contacting the physician to discuss the use of ginger ensures the client's safety and respects their preferences. Choices B and C are incorrect as they disregard the client's request and fail to acknowledge their cultural beliefs. Choice D is incorrect because it does not address the client's desire to use ginger for relief.

5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

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