Nursing Elites

1. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

• A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
• B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
• C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
• D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

2. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?

• A. peptic ulcer studies
• B. complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin
• C. genetic testing
• D. hemoglobin electrophoresis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin, as the initial tests to assess the client's symptoms related to fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. These symptoms can be indicative of anemia, which can be caused by nutritional deficiencies due to fad dieting without vitamin supplements. Peptic ulcer studies, genetic testing, and hemoglobin electrophoresis are not the most appropriate initial tests for the client's presenting symptoms and history. Peptic ulcer studies are not relevant to the client's symptoms. Genetic testing is not indicated based on the client's presentation and history. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose specific types of anemia and is not the first-line test in this scenario. Further testing decisions should be based on the results of the initial tests, the client's history, and other relevant factors.

3. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the doctor
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Do nothing
• D. Remove the drain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:

• A. urinary excess
• B. hyperpituitarism
• C. urinary deficit
• D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.

5. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?

• A. Hepatitis A
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Hepatitis C
• D. Hepatitis D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids, not through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, not via the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis D occurs only in individuals infected with Hepatitis B. Therefore, the correct choice for the type of hepatitis transmitted via the fecal-oral route is Hepatitis A.

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