Nursing Elites

1. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

• A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
• B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
• C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
• D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

2. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

• A. High calorie, low protein
• B. High protein, high calorie
• C. Low fat, low sodium
• D. High calorie, low sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

3. A central venous pressure reading of 11cm/H(2)O of an IV of normal saline is determined by the nurse caring for the patient. The patient has a diagnosis of pericarditis. Which of the following is the most applicable?

• A. The patient has a condition of hypovolemia.
• B. Not enough fluid has been given to the patient.
• C. Pericarditis may cause pressures greater than 10cm/H(2)O with testing of CVP.
• D. The patient may have a condition of arteriosclerosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A central venous pressure reading above 10cm/H(2)O may indicate a condition of pericarditis, as the inflammation and fluid accumulation around the heart can lead to elevated pressures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypovolemia would typically result in lower CVP readings, not higher. Not enough fluid given would also lead to lower CVP levels. Arteriosclerosis is not directly related to CVP readings in the context of pericarditis.

4. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

5. A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse's priority of care?

• A. Give the pain medication and return in an hour for further assessment to allow time for the medication to work.
• B. Complete the postpartum assessment and then give the client pain medication.
• C. Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client's pain has subsided.
• D. Instruct the patient to do relaxation exercises to relieve her discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn't caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.

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