Nursing Elites

1. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

• A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
• B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
• C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
• D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

2. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?

• A. Potassium.
• B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
• C. C-reactive protein (CRP).
• D. Platelets.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.

3. A client with sleep apnea has been ordered a CPAP machine. Which action could the RN delegate to a nursing assistant?

• A. Reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime
• B. Obtaining every three-hour oxygen saturation levels
• C. Teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine
• D. Assessing for fatigue or depression caused by poor sleep

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it involves a simple and routine reminder. Option B, obtaining oxygen saturation levels, requires a higher level of training and interpretation of results, making it more appropriate for an RN. Option C, teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine, involves educating the client and ensuring proper use of medical equipment, which is within the RN's scope of practice. Option D, assessing for fatigue or depression, requires a comprehensive evaluation that involves interpreting symptoms and identifying underlying causes, making it more suitable for an RN to address.

4. A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:

• A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
• B. stomatitis.
• C. constipation.
• D. xerostomia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

5. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.

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