Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?

• A. open leg fracture
• B. open head injury
• C. stab wound to the chest
• D. traumatic amputation of a thumb

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions. In this scenario, the stab wound to the chest poses the highest risk to the client's life as it can lead to severe complications such as lung collapse and mediastinal shift. Addressing this injury promptly is crucial to prevent further harm or potential fatality. Open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to a stab wound to the chest.

2. The nurse is assessing the newborn's respirations. Which of these findings would indicate a need for follow-up and further intervention?

• A. irregular respirations
• B. abdominal respirations
• C. shallow respirations
• D. 70 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ideal respiratory rate in a newborn is 30-60 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea and may require intervention. Therefore, a rate of 70 breaths per minute would necessitate follow-up and further intervention. Irregular, abdominal, and shallow respirations are common in newborns and may not necessarily indicate the need for immediate follow-up or intervention.

3. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

4. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?

• A. "I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old."?
• B. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old."?
• C. "I have a strong family history of gastric cancer."?
• D. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.

5. The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?

• A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
• C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
• D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.

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