Nursing Elites

1. A 93-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's Disease gets admitted to an Alzheimer's unit. The patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait. Moreover, the patient is refusing to use a w/c. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?

• A. Recommend the patient remain in her room at all times.
• B. Recommend family members bring pictures to the patient's room.
• C. Recommend a speech therapy consult to the doctor.
• D. Recommend the patient attempt to walk pushing the w/c for safety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 93-year-old female with Alzheimer's Disease exhibiting signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait, recommending family members to bring pictures to the patient's room is the most appropriate course of action. Visual stimulation in the form of pictures may help decrease signs of confusion and provide comfort to the patient. Option A is incorrect as isolating the patient in her room at all times may worsen her condition by further limiting stimulation and interaction. Option C is incorrect as speech therapy may not directly address the current issues of confusion and gait instability. Option D is incorrect as pushing a wheelchair may not be safe for the patient if she is refusing to use it, potentially leading to falls or further distress.

2. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?

• A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
• B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• C. Theophylline (Theodur)
• D. Albuterol (Atrovent)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.

3. The nurse is preparing for a dressing change on a full thickness burn to the flank area. The orders include irrigating the wound with each dressing change. To irrigate the wound, what will the nurse use?

• A. Sterile saline
• B. Distilled water
• C. Betadine scrub
• D. Tap water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When irrigating a wound, especially in the case of a full-thickness burn, it is crucial to use a solution that is gentle and non-irritating to the tissues. Sterile saline is the preferred choice for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and does not cause additional damage to the already compromised tissue. Distilled water lacks the electrolytes present in saline, Betadine scrub is not used for irrigation due to its potential to be cytotoxic, and tap water may introduce contaminants and microorganisms to the wound.

4. What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?

• A. Encourage the client to cook for others
• B. Weigh the client daily and keep a journal
• C. Restrict access to mirrors
• D. Monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals. This is crucial in caring for a client with an eating disorder as it helps in assessing any immediate risks related to the disorder. Option A is incorrect as it may trigger additional stress for the client and distract from the main focus of managing the disorder. Option B, weighing the client daily, could lead to an unhealthy focus on weight and potentially worsen the client's mental health. Option C, restricting access to mirrors, although it may be beneficial for body image concerns, does not directly address the core issue of monitoring food intake and behavior, which is essential in managing eating disorders.

5. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

Similar Questions