Nursing Elites

1. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

2. Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?

• A. presence of breathing and pulse rate
• B. breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing
• C. presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing
• D. patient position and adequacy of breathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing. It is crucial not only to confirm that the client is breathing but also to ensure that the breathing is adequate for proper oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while pulse rate, breathing pattern, and patient position are relevant aspects to consider, the most critical observations in assessing a client's breathing are the presence and adequacy of breathing.

3. The client is being discharged after a concussion. Which of the following symptoms should be reported?

• A. Difficulty waking up
• B. Headache (3/10 on the pain scale)
• C. Bruising on knees and elbows
• D. Achy feeling all over

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Difficulty waking up' because it indicates a change in consciousness, which is a concerning symptom following a concussion. Reporting this symptom is crucial as it may signify a more severe head injury. 'Headache (3/10 on the pain scale)' may be common after a concussion but is not as urgent as a change in consciousness. 'Bruising on knees and elbows' is likely unrelated to the concussion and not a priority for reporting. 'Achy feeling all over' is a vague symptom and not specific to a concerning change in the client's condition post-concussion.

4. A nurse working in a surgical unit notices a patient experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All of these symptoms may indicate which of the following medical conditions?

• A. Patient may have a DVT.
• B. Patient may be exhibiting signs of dermatitis.
• C. Patient may be in the late stages of CHF.
• D. Patient may be experiencing anxiety after surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient may have a DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis). SOB (Shortness of Breath), calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf are classic signs and symptoms of DVT. DVT is a serious condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, commonly in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dermatitis does not typically present with these symptoms, late stages of CHF would manifest with other signs, and anxiety after surgery usually does not produce these specific symptoms.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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