Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Hiccups
• C. Blood glucose of 150
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.

2. A patient has recently been prescribed Lidocaine Hydrochloride. Which of the following symptoms may occur with an overdose?

• A. Memory loss and lack of appetite
• B. Confusion and fatigue
• C. Heightened reflexes
• D. Tinnitus and spasticity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Confusion and fatigue.' Lidocaine Hydrochloride, when taken in excess, can lead to symptoms such as confusion and fatigue. It affects the central nervous system, leading to these cognitive and physical impairments. Choice A ('Memory loss and lack of appetite') is incorrect because memory loss is not a common symptom of Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose, and lack of appetite is not a typical effect. Choice C ('Heightened reflexes') is incorrect as Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose usually depresses reflexes rather than heightening them. Choice D ('Tinnitus and spasticity') is incorrect as tinnitus and spasticity are not commonly associated with Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose.

3. A mother brings her 13-month-old child with Down Syndrome to a pediatric clinic reporting muscle weakness and poor movement. The child's reflexes are noted to be diminished. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the physician immediately
• B. Have the patient go for an X-ray for a c-spine work-up
• C. Start an IV on the patient
• D. Position the child's neck in a neutral position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with Down Syndrome presenting with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes, an atlanto-axial dislocation is a concern. The priority action is to position the child's neck in a neutral c-spine posture to prevent further injury. This should be done before any movement or manipulation. Contacting the physician should follow to ensure appropriate evaluation and management. Initiating an IV is not indicated unless specifically ordered for a medical reason. Ordering an X-ray for a c-spine work-up should not be the first action as it may involve movement that could exacerbate the condition if an injury is present.

4. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:

• A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
• B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
• C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
• D. the control of aldosterone levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?

• A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
• B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
• C. Insert NG tube to low suction
• D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.

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