Nursing Elites

1. When dressing a severe burn to the right hand, it is important for the nurse to:

• A. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement
• B. Wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing
• C. Open blisters to allow drainage prior to dressing
• D. Allow the client to do as much of the dressing change as possible

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dressing a severe burn to the hand, it is crucial to wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing, which can lead to contractures and impaired function. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement is not recommended for burn wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal. Opening blisters can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. Allowing the client to perform the dressing change may not ensure proper care and can lead to complications.

2. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

• A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
• B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
• C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
• D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

3. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

4. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
• B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
• C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
• D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.

5. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

• A. inspection for visible pulsations.
• B. palpation of thrill.
• C. percussion for dullness.
• D. auscultation of blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

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