Nursing Elites

1. What type of cells create exocrine secretions?

• A. alpha cells
• B. beta cells
• C. acinar cells
• D. plasma cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acinar cells are responsible for creating exocrine secretions, such as enzymes and digestive juices. Alpha cells are found in the pancreas and are responsible for producing glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, and plasma cells are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is acinar cells, as they specifically produce exocrine secretions.

2. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

3. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

• A. quickening
• B. ophthalmia neonatorum
• C. pica
• D. prolapsed umbilical cord

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

4. What is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1, herpes simplex virus 2, and varicella-zoster virus?

• A. HIV.
• B. HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV.
• C. CMV
• D. Influenza A viruses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1), herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution is needed in renal impairment. Choice A, HIV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the drug of choice for HIV. Choice C, CMV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the preferred treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. Choice D, Influenza A viruses, is incorrect as acyclovir is not used to treat influenza viruses.

5. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?

• A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
• B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
• C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
• D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.

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